Section I: Classification
1. What is the classification of sweetened banana chips composed of approximately 65%
bananas, 25% coconut oil and 10% sugar? The sweetened banana chips are produced by slicing
bananas, frying them in coconut oil, sweetening them with sugar, and drying them.
2. Certain womenâ€™s bowling shoes, while imported as a pair, have separate identities. Both
shoes have uppers of 100 percent rubber/plastics. The left shoe has an outer sole of
rubber/plastics. The rightshoe has an outer sole consisting of rubber/plastics and a large textile
sliding pad. The textile pad comprises the majority of the surface area facing the ground. The
shoes are below-the-ankle, do not have a foxing or foxing-like band, are not protective, and are
secured to the foot with laces. What is the classification of this pair of bowling shoes?
3. What is the classification for a basket made of interwoven strips of non-coniferous wood
4. What is the classification for an engineered flooring panel (7 layers, plywood construction)
with an unfinished oak face ply, measuring 5mm in thickness, a poplar back ply measuring 1mm
in thickness, and all other plies measuring 2mm in thickness? (The panel is tongued and grooved
on edges and ends.)
5. What is the classification of an unfinished, solid maple (a non-coniferous wood) flooring
plank that is tongued and grooved on its edges and ends?
6. What is the classification of the following items: two steel steak knives with plastic handles,
two steel forks with plastic handles and two steel tablespoons with plastic handles? The items
are imported packaged for retail sale.
7. What is the classification of an over-the counter acne treatment cream containing salicylic
acid (1% by weight) as the active ingredient mixed with other inactive ingredients? The product
is put up in a 1 ounce plastic tube for retail sale and it is indicated for the prevention and
treatment of acne pimples.
8. What is the classification for retail packages of â€˜Smokers Finest Alternativeâ€™ TiramisuFlavored Cigarettesâ€ consisting of dried, shredded lettuce (mixed with artificial coffee-andchocolate flavoring) encased in paper tubes incorporating filter tips? The import value per pack
of 20 cigarettes is $5.00.
9. What is the classification of a menâ€™s pocket T-shirt? The garment is all white and is cut and
sewn from 100% cotton, light weight jersey knit fabric. The garment has a rib knit crew
neckline, short hemmed sleeves, a small patch pocket on the left chest, and a hemmed bottom.
10. What is the classification of a menâ€™s pullover garment? The garment is knit to shape from
40% cashmere, 24% wool, 20% acrylic, and 16% nylon jersey knit fabric, which measures 14
stitches per 2 centimeters in the direction in which the stitches were formed. The garment has a
rib knit round neckline, long sleeves, and a rib knit bottom.
11. What is the classification of a textile net specifically designed and cut to fit the exact
dimensions of a regulation soccer goal?
12. What is the classification of an apparel set consisting of a cotton knit pullover and cotton
denim pants for babies having a body height of 80 centimeters?
A) 6110.20.2069 and 6203.42.4036
B) 6111.20.3000 and 6209.20.3000
C) 6111.20.6020 and 6209.20.5035
D) 6111.20.6030 and 6209.20.5045
E) 6209.20.5035 and 6209.20.5035
13. What is the classification of apple juice at single strength (13 Brix) fortified with Vitamin
C, and Vitamin D?
A. 0813.30.00 00
B. 2009.71.00 00
D. 2202.90.36 00
E. 2202.90.37 00
14. What is classification for an anthraquinone dispersion? The anthraquinone dispersion is
composed of the following ingredients: sodium napthalene sulphonate) 2%, (xanthan gum)
.08%, anthraquinone 50%, and water 47.92%. The product is formulated for a specific use in
the pulp and paper industry as a coating and stiffening agent. Anthraquinone is an aromatic
substance. Sodium napthalene sulphonate is a dispersing agent and xanthan gum is a thickening
15. Chuck Funk, LLC, imports Goblin Green Statement Earcandy, a new addition to their
current Funky Earcandy line of earrings. Each earring set imported consists of a pair of earrings,
which are together valued at $30. Each earring is comprised of one round bevel that holds ten
grouped 1 millimeter faceted round glass stones. At the center of this bevel is one 5 by 5
millimeter tiger’s eye stone. Attached directly below this bevel is one dangling 30 by 30
millimeter indicolite colored plastic emerald. Note that Chuck Funk, LLC, imports all of its
items exclusively from China, and there are no concerns other than that of item classification.
What is the most appropriate duty rate?
16. Your client is importing a 55-inch color television with LED (light-emitting diode)
backlighting from China. The television contains a liquid crystal display (LCD) screen, but does
not incorporate any video recording or reproducing apparatus. What is the classification of this
LED-backlit LCD television?
17. What is the classification of a wafer slicing saw, i.e., a machine tool that slices wafersfrom a
boule of monocrystalline silicon semiconductor material? Documentation has been supplied
establishing that this particular model is of a kind used solely or principally for the manufacture
of semiconductor wafers.
18. In their imported condition, eight wine glasses from China are packed together in a retail
box. The box of eight glasses is being sold by the foreign shipper to the American importer for
the price of $4.80 FOB. The value of each wine glass within the box is sixty cents. The glasses
are not cut or engraved. The products are not lead crystal glassware and do not consist of pressed
and toughened (specially tempered) glass. Each glass is colored prior to solidification and
characterized by random distribution of numerous bubbles throughout the mass of the glass.
What is the classification for this merchandise?
19. What is the classification for a cold-rolled non-alloy steel flat-rolled product in coils, with
a width of 700 mm, electrolytically plated with zinc, and with a thickness of 4 mm and a
minimum yield point of 355 MPa?
20. What is the classification for 10 paper labels for apple juice that is printed by a lithographic
21. What is the classification for a fish product described as cooked â€œAustralian Herringâ€
(species Arripis georgianus) fillets packed in water and spices in airtight cans?
22. What is the classification for live pigeons imported into the United States for processing and
subsequent sale in the fresh or frozen poultry sections of supermarkets and butcher shops?
23. Your client is importing ceramic honeycomb substrates. After importation, the bare
ceramic substrates will be coated with a catalyst and incorporated into a catalytic converter for
the exhaust system of an automobile. The data sheet for the ceramic substrates indicates that
they are made of a ceramic which is not porcelain or china, and have a Mohs hardness equivalent
of 10.2. What is the classification for the ceramic substrates?
24. Which article constitutes a composite machine?
A. A paint-mixing machine that is imported unassembled containing all its components
including a motor, casing, blades, dispenser and electric cord.
B. An outboard motor that is comprised of an electric motor, shaft, propeller and a rudder in its
C. A cellular phone battery and charging cable that has USB connectors at either end. They are
imported together in a blister pack ready for retail sale.
D. A portable paper fax machine that is imported and functions as a facsimile machine,
telephone, and answering machine.
E. A plastic cell phone cover that is imported for a cellular phone. It also functions as an
external battery pack which recharges the battery within the cell phone.
25. Johanna Billings travelled in Europe and purchased some individual natural pearls. The
pearls were appraised as being over 100 years old with an AAA grading. However, for the
convenience of transport, Johanna had the natural pearls temporarily strung prior to returning to
the United States. What is the classification for the string of natural pearls?
26. What is the classification of a titanium hex head cap screw? The screw is used to attach a
jet engine to an airplane. It is a non-standard size (11.2 mm diameter), which is only used in the
Section â€“ Free Trade Agreements/Preferential Trade
27. European grown and processed tobacco enters the U.S. under subheading 2401.30.03and is
manufactured into goods of subheading 2403.91.20 and shipped to Mexico. The goods are
further processed in Mexico and finally returned to the United States under subheading
2403.91.20. Do the goods imported into the United States from Mexico qualify to receive
preferential tariff treatment under NAFTA?
A. This can only be determined by the U.S.-Mexico NAFTA Technical Committee at its
transaction review, which will automatically be conducted, using confidential criteria, shortly
B. No, the goods definitely do not qualify.
C. Yes, the goods qualify without condition.
D. Only if the goods are satisfactorily labeled with required health warnings.
E. Provisionally, pending verification of compliance with USDA product quality standards.
28. A plastics milling plant located in New York City imports French polypropylene pellets
(classified in 3902.10.0000) for grinding into polypropylene powder (classified in
3902.10.0000). The powder is made solely from the foreign material. The company claims the
good have been substantially transformed making the country of origin the United States. Which
of the following statements is correct?
A. The term â€œCountry of originâ€ always means the country of exportation of any article of
foreign origin entering the United States.
B. Any further work added to an article in another country is always enough to render such
other country the â€œcountry of originâ€.
C. The â€œNAFTA Marking Rulesâ€ are never used to determine the country of origin for a
D. The â€œNAFTA Marking Rulesâ€ never require that each foreign material incorporated in
that good undergoes an applicable change in tariff classification.
E. The â€œNAFTA Marking Rulesâ€ require a change to heading 3901 through 3915 from
any other heading, including another heading within that group. The required tariff heading
change does not occur, therefore, the country of origin of the product remains France.
29. U.S. yarn is woven into cotton fabric and exported to South Africa where it is cut and
assembled into trousers. The thread used for sewing is from Korea and the waistbands are
formed in Korea. The trousers are washed, packed and shipped from Kenya to the United States.
Which of the following statements is true based on the requirements for the African Growth
Opportunity Act (AGOA)?
A. These trousers qualify for AGOA.
B. The Korean waistband disqualifies these garments for AGOA.
C. The Korean sewing thread disqualifies these garments for AGOA.
D. These trousers would be classified in Chapter 61 of the HTSUS.
E. These trousers do not qualify for AGOA because they were notshipped directly from
South Africa to the U.S.
30. Fabric is cut and sewn into lined womenâ€™s trousersin Mexico. The wool yarn was formed
in Canada, elastomeric yarn is formed in Korea. The composition of the fabric is 96% wool and
4% spandex fabric that was woven in the U.S. The visible lining fabric was woven in Korea and
classified under subheading 5512.19. The trousers are imported to the U.S. from Mexico.
Which of the following statements is true based on the requirements of the North American Free
Trade Agreement (NAFTA)?
A. The elastomeric yarn from Korea disqualifies these trousers from NAFTA.
B. The Korean visible lining fabric does not disqualify these trousers from NAFTA.
C. The Korean visible lining fabric disqualifies these trousers from NAFTA.
D. The component that determines the classification of these trousers is classified in
E. These trousers do not qualify for NAFTA because they do not make the necessary tariff
31. Cotton fabric is knitted in the U.S. from U.S. yarn and is sent to Guatemala where it is cut.
The cut components are sewn into a dress in Jamaica using U.S. sewing thread. The dresses are
returned to Guatemala where they are embroidered using Guatemalan embroidery thread that
comprises 26% of the value of the garment. The dresses are imported into the U.S. from
Guatemala. Would this dress qualify for Caribbean Basin Trade and Partnership (CBTPA)?
A. This dress qualifies for CBTPA.
B. This dress does not qualify for CBTPA because the fabric is cut in Guatemala.
C. This dress does not qualify for CBTPA because the embroidery thread exceeds the
permissible de minimis value for foreign findings or trimmings.
D. This dress does not qualify for CBTPA because it does not meet the direct shipment
E. This dress would be classified in heading 6204 of the HTSUS.
Section – Miscellaneous
32. When merchandise is imported into the U.S. Virgin Islands, which laws govern the
A. National Office of the Caribbean Netherlands
B. U.S. Customs and Border Protection
C. U.S. Department of Commerce
D. Secretariat of the Caribbean Community (CARICOM)
E. Virgin Island Law
33. Fish are caught by a Norwegian flagged vessel in international waters on the coast of
Portugal where the fish are kept either whole or filleted on board. The fillets are sent to England,
where they are seasoned, battered, and pre-fried. What is the country of origin of the battered
D. European Union
34. Whenever articles subject to different rates of duty are packed together tightly or
commingled in such a way that CBP officers cannot readily determine the quantity, value or
classification of the merchandise without physically separating the shipment or the contents of
any package, the combined merchandise will be subject to the highest rate of duty or duty rates
applicable to any kind merchandise that is included in the commingling with exception. Which
of the following statements is not a condition to obtain a reduction in the higher rate of duty? .
A. The importer shall file a protest at the time of discovery to dispute the increase in duty prior
to the submission of the entry summary
B. The quantity and value of each of the kinds so included can be readily ascertained by the
usual method of CBP examination
C. The importer shall perform the segregation under CBP Supervision
D. The importer shall file with the port director documentary proof which will satisfy the port
director that the merchandise is entitled to the lower rate
E. The importer shall satisfy the conditions specified in General Note 3(f), HTSUS
35. Which of the following identification numbers cannot be used on the current CBP Form
5106 (Importer Identification Input Record)?
A. Internal Revenue Service Employer Identification Number
B. Passport Number
C. CBP â€“ Assigned Number
D. Social Security Number
E. Internal Revenue Service Number with a Two digit suffix code
36. The port director may waive the requirement for an importer to produce an invoice. The
waiver may occur for one of two reasons. One reason would be when the port director is
satisfied that the importer cannot, by reason of conditions beyond his control, furnish a
complete and accurate invoice. Please select the other reason from the choices below.
A. The goods will be consumed during the manufacturing process.
B. The shipment was determined to be less than $2,500.00
C. The examination of merchandise, final determination of duties, and collection of statistics
can be effected properly without the production of the required invoice.
D. The appraisement of the merchandise was conducted by a third party and under CBP
E. The shipment was seized.
37. Generally, anti-dumping or countervailing duties are imposed on entries of merchandise
made on or after the date on which the Secretary first imposes provisional measures. However,
duties may be imposed retroactively on merchandise entered up to 90 days before the imposition
of provisional measures. Which of the following term best describes this situation?
A. antidumping circumvention
B. avoidance structuring
C. critical circumstances
D. inventory manipulation
E. willful evasion
38. Which group of HTSUS Headings is prohibited or conditioned as described in the Tom
Lantos Block Burmese JADE (Juntaâ€™s Anti-Democratic Efforts) Act of 2008 (Public Law 110-
A. 7101, 7102, 7103
B. 7103, 7113, 7116
C. 7113, 7114, 7115
D. 7103, 7104, 7105
E. 7115, 7116, 7117
39. Use the following information below to construct the manufacturerâ€™sidentification number.
Hilton and Holton, Ltd.
One thousand eighty-one Trust Street
40. The Embassy of Nunavit
Five Thousand Chateau Place
41. Which of the following statements is not a requirement that must be met in
order to obtain the benefits of prior disclosure?
A. Specify the material false statements, omissions or acts that occurred
B. Set forth, to the best of the disclosing partyâ€™s knowledge, the true and
accurate information that should have been provided
C. Furnish a list of all entry numbers, or advise the ports of the entries and
approximate dates of entry.
D. Remit the loss of duties, taxes and fees within 30 days after CBPâ€™s
notification of the actual loss of revenue
E. Provide an action plan to CBP that denotes the steps that will be taken to
ensure future compliance.
42. You have before you a Cost Insurance and Freight (C.I.F.)shipment which
has an invoice value of $5,000, and a weight of 12,000 kilograms. The duty rate is
10% plus 2 cents per kilogram. Included in the invoice price are: brokerage fees
of $50, ocean freight costs of $600, and duty. (Minimum merchandise processing
fee of $25 applies, and there are no other applicable fees.) The merchandise was
imported January 31, 2012. However, the buyer and seller agreed to a price
reduction of $500 on February 4, 2012 (before the entry summary) to reflect a
â€˜new customerâ€™ discount. What should the entered value of the shipment be?
43. When the quantity of tariff-rate quota merchandise exceeds the quota quantity, which of the
following is the correct action to take?
A. Destroy the merchandise and provide proof to CBP.
B. Export the merchandise
C. Ship the merchandise in-bond for immediate entry to another port.
D. Store the merchandise at the carrierâ€™s facility.
E. Warehouse the merchandise at a container station.
44. Which of the following is required for the importation of raw cane sugar from the
A. Special Indicator â€œEâ€
B. Special Indicator â€œJâ€
C. Certificate of Quota Eligibility
D. Certificate of Origin
E. Centrifugal Form
45. The U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) hires a broker for the importation of injection mold
equipment to be used in an unmanned aerial vehicle. The DoD instructs the brokerthat a power
of attorney is not required due to the nature and sensitivity of the importation and the fact that the
equipment is for the DoD. Based on this information, which of the following statement is true?
A. A power of attorney is not required where the DoD is to act as the importer of record.
B. The broker may not act as the importer of record.
C. Military platforms and components thereof are exempt from examination by U.S.
Customs and Border Protection.
D. Injection mold equipment is identified in Chapter 4 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of
the United States.
E. Importations made for the account of a U.S. government agency are subject to the usual
Customs entry requirements.
46. Bowles Japan is importing certain stainless steel pipes and tubes of heat-resisting steel
under 7304.59.2030 . This merchandise is subject to antidumping duties. Ryanâ€™s Limited
Brokerage services Bowles Japan and has permits in the Districts of Anchorage and
Philadelphia. The merchandise is being shipped to Junior Queen, its selling agent (located in
Baltimore, Maryland) who has no financial interest in this transaction. At the nominal
consigneeâ€™s request, the shipment is diverted to New York for entry. Ryanâ€™s Limited Brokerage
is in possession of a valid power of attorney (POA) from the Grantor, authorizing other Customs
brokers to make entry. Ryanâ€™s Limited Brokerage creates a sub agency POA with Jackson
Brokerage who is only permitted in the District of New York. Who should file the entry?
A. Ryanâ€™s Limited Brokerage
B. Jackson Brokerage
C. the nominal consignee
D. Junior Queen (selling agent)
E. none of the parties
47. If not associated with an outstanding transaction, what is the timeframe that an Importer
Identification Number shall remain on file from the date on which it was last used on Customs
Form 7501 (Entry Summary) or a request for services?
A. 90 Days
B. 1 year
C. 3 Years
D. 5 Years
48. A shipment of pesticides or devices shall be detained at the importer’s expense pending an
examination by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Administrator to determine if the
shipment complies with the requirements of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide
Act. However, a shipment detained for examination may be released to the consignee prior to a
determination by the EPA Administrator provided a bond is furnished for the return of the
merchandise to Customs custody. Who would determine the bond amount?
A. An Import Specialist
B. A customs officer/inspector
C. A broker
D. A port director
E. A representative from the Environmental Protection Agency EPA
49. Whose bond is liable when merchandise is delivered directly to a container station from an
A. Bonded Warehouse
C. Container Station
E. Importing Carrier
50. Michael & Sons Brokerage has permits in the Districts of Atlanta, New Orleans, and Los
Angeles. Michael & Sons Brokerage service a German bearing manufacturer that ships
merchandise subject to antidumping duties to its affiliated U.S. incorporated selling agent that is
located at the Port of Long Beach, California. The selling agent has no financial interest in the
commercial transaction. At the nominal consigneeâ€™s request, the shipment of bearings is
diverted to Norfolk, Virginia for entry. Michael & Sons Brokerage is in possession of a valid
power of attorney (POA) from the Grantor, authorizing other Customs brokers to make entry.
Michael & Sons Brokerage creates a sub agency POA with Bill Johnson Brokerage who is only
permitted in the District of New Orleans. Who should file the entry?
A. Michael & Sons Brokerage
B. Bill Johnson Brokerage
C. the nominal consignee
D. U.S. selling agent
E. none of the parties
51. How many days following the date of release from CBP custody are textile and textile
products deemed conditional?
52. What is the appropriate entry type for the relocation of unreleased merchandise from the
Port of Seattle to the Port of Pembina?
A. Entry type 63
B. Entry type 61
C. Entry type 52
D. Entry type 06
E. Entry type 01
53. When importing commodities that are regulated under the Toxic Substances Control Act, a
certifying statement must be presented prior to release; unless the importer has a blanket
certification on file with CBP. Which citation outlines the reporting requirements for a blanket
A. 19 CFR 12.110
B. 19CFR 12.112
C. 19CFR 12.121(a)
D. 19CFR 12.121(a)(2)(ii)(A)
E. 19CFR 12.123(a)
54. Entries subject to payment of AD/CVD and various fees must indicate the applicable fees
and collection codes on the CBP Form 7501. What are the collection codes for the following
fees: Pecan, Potato, Blueberry, and Avocado?
A. 499, 496, 311, and 500
B. 501, 500, 496, and 311
C. 107, 106, 090, and 057
D. 108, 106, 103, and 090
E. 104, 079, 057, and 056
55. When the bond (that is used in conjunction with the entry of merchandise)is found by the
U.S. International Trade Commission to involve unfair practices or methods of competition, the
bond limit shall be fixed in what amount?
A. Three times the total entered value of the merchandise.
B. Ten percent of the total entered value of the merchandise.
C. Fixed at an amount to cover the accelerated payment of duty, taxes, and fees.
D. At the whim of the Commission.
E. At two hundred percent of the total entered value of the merchandise.
56. Jack Sprat Imports, a nominal consignee, desires to generate an entry for a shipment.
Which of the following is the appropriate entry processing procedure?
A. Jack Sprat Imports can file an entry as a nominal consignee.
B. Jack Sprat Imports can file an entry as a nominal consignee for the importer of record.
C. Jack Sprat Imports can have a broker file an entry for them, listing Jack Sprat Imports as
Importer of Record.
D. Jack Sprat Imports can file an entry as the importer of record.
E. Jack Sprat Imports can have a broker file an entry for them if the broker islisted as the
importer of record.
57. For merchandise that is released but not sold or consigned, who is the ultimate consignee?
A. The overseas shipper.
B. The storage facility administrator
C. The carrier
D. The broker
E. The importer
58. What is the bond limit for imported flammable fabrics?
A. Three times the total of the duty, taxes, and fees.
B. Three times the value of the merchandise.
C. Three time the value of the merchandise plus the total of the duty taxes, and fees.
D. The entered value of the merchandise plus the total of the duty, taxes, and fees.
E. The bond limit shall be fixed in an amount the port director may deem necessary.
59. Which of the following surety code is utilized in the preparation of an entry when
government securities are used?
60. An in-bond transaction consists of three mandatory QX records. The in-bond records that
make up the transaction must be transmitted to CBP in ascending order with certain segments
repeated as often as necessary. Which of the following conditions must be met before an inbond will be accepted?
A. The carrier must have transmitted the bill prior to the transmission of QX data.
B. The QX filer must be set to operational for entry summary
C. Brokers may participate if they establish the required communication link.
D. Freight forwarders may participate if they procure suitable software.
E. Non-brokers may participate if they are able to extract QX records
61. A Courtesy Notice is issued when what occurs?
A. A Protest is resolved.
B. Insufficient funds are received for an entry summary.
C. A rejected entry/entry summary is received in proper form.
E. Closure of a TIB entry.
Section â€“ Intellectual Property Rights (IPR)
62. Under what authority will CBP seize a shipment of imported merchandise bearing a
A. 19 CFR 127.12
B. 19 CFR 133.21
C. 19 CFR 133.22
D. 19 CFR 133.42
E. 19 USC 1527
63. Before recording with CBP, the applicant must first have the mark registered with which
A. Office of the United States Trade Representative
B. Department of State
C. U.S. Patent and Trademark Office
D. Library of Congress
E. International Trade Commission
Section â€“ Broker Compliance
64. Ms. Bardin, of Gatwick, England is visiting her aunt and imported her motorcycle for
transportation while in the U.S. The classification for her motorcycle is?
65. Ms. Bardin, of Gatwick, England also designs womenâ€™s motorcycle helmets and is
importing 13 models of her designs to generate interest for her website. What is the correct
classification for her helmets?
66. A brokerâ€™s license is required for which of the following transactions?
A. A person transacting business in connection with entry or clearance of vessels or other
regulation of vessels under the navigation laws.
B. A carrier bringing merchandise to the port of arrival and making a transportation bond
entry for that merchandise.
C. You, entering a consumption entry for merchandise imported for yourself.
D. An individual entering commercial merchandise for an acquaintance.
E. A foreign trade zone operator transferring merchandise from a zone designated section to
an export review section in the zone.
67. The request to extend the time for liquidation will be honored when the appeal comes from?
A. The carrier.
B. The Director of Field Operations
C. The broker
D. The cartage company
E. The importer
68. What is the maximum amount of extension time that can be granted for liquidation?
A. 5 years
B. 8 years
C. 6 years
D. 3 years
E. 10 years
69. If a permitted broker fails to have an individual employed within that district or region for
seven months what happens to that permit?
70. When a licensed broker files the status report and related fee for their corporate license, but
fails to file and pay for their individual license, what happens to the individual license?
A. The license remains in current status.
B. The license is in good standing because the corporate status report was filed.
C. The license will only be suspended at the most extreme.
D. The license is subject to revocation by operation of law.
E. The license does not have an expiration period.
71. A broker may compensate a freight forwarder for referring brokerage business in which of
the following scenarios:
A. The freight forwarder transmits the brokerage charges and fees directly to the importer.
B. The freight forwarder notifies the importer in advance with the name of the broker
C. The freight forwarder collects the brokerage fees and charges the forwarder transmitted to
D. The freight forwarder is the exclusive conduit for all communication between the broker
E. The freight forwarder transmits and collects all brokerage/ forwarding charges and fees
from the importer.
72. Can a broker import the same merchandise as their customer ?
A. Yes, if the customer receives a discount from the broker.
B. Yes, if the brokerâ€™s employee is the importer of record.
C. Yes, if the broker is the importer of record.
D. Yes, if the broker fully discloses the facts to the customer.
E. Yes, if the broker is identified as the consignee and importer of record.
73. A broker must remit to CBP past due duties, taxes, and fees received from a customer
within how many business days?
74. After filing a claim for preferential treatment of goods under the NAFTA upon importation
through a formal declaration, a U.S. importer has how many days to revise the declaration if
based on erroneous information?
A. 30 calendar days
B. 30 business days
C. 45 business days
D. 45 calendar days
E. 60 business days
75. CBP assessed a monetary penalty against Peter, licensed Customs broker, for failing to
conduct responsible supervision and control over the business which he conducted. After CBP
issued a penalty notice against Peter, Peter filed a petition for relief. CBP mitigated the penalty
and Peter paid the mitigated amount. What action can Peter initiate immediately after the fact?
A. Request a face to face meeting
B. File a supplemental petition of relief
C. File a protest
D. File a suit against CBP in the Court of International Trade (CIT)
E. File entries using another brokerâ€™s filer code
76. If a broker knows that a client has not complied with the law or has made an error in, or
omission from, any document, affidavit, or other paper which that law requires the client to
execute, what must the broker do?
A. Continue to adhere to the contractual agreement between broker and his/her client.
B. Immediately discontinue his/her relationship with the client.
C. Contact CBP for guidance.
D. Advise the client promptly of the noncompliance.
E.. Prepare a prior disclosure.
77. Phil Isler, an employee of BP Brokerage, was recently convicted of a felony and spent a
year in jail, paid a monetary fine and is now on 3-year probation. Upon his release, he contacted
the broker and was re-hired because of his extensive knowledge and skill with the preparation of
entry documents and family ties with the owner and license qualifier of BP Brokerage. Since his
re-hire, BP Brokerage business has increased significantly. Mr. Islerâ€™s rehire occurred
subsequent to the 2012 triennial reporting period. From the list below, what is the first course of
action the broker should take?
A. Not inform CBP of Mr. Islerâ€™s employment, because he does not sign CBP-related
B. Prepare a written request to the Assistant Commissioner for approval to employ Mr. Isler.
C. Contact the local port and ask them to add Mr. Islerâ€™s name to the brokerâ€™s employee list.
D. Submit an updated employee list to the port which includes Mr. Islerâ€™s name.
E. Wait to include Mr. Isler on the 2015 triennial report.
78. A broker does not have any settlement options for disciplinary proceedings which have
been instituted against it.
A. True, the broker â€˜s next option is to file the case in court.
B. True, the brokerâ€™s next option is to file a case with the U.S. Federal Mediation and
C. False, the brokerâ€™s next option is to file an offer in compromise.23
D. False, the broker has an option to decline the disciplinary proceedings
E. False, the broker has an option to suspend the disciplinary proceedings for future
79. Which of the following is true?
A. A broker may allow a freight forwarder to promote combined service by using both their
names in advertisements.
B. A broker, cartman, and freight forwarder may offer their services in conjunction through
the cartmanâ€™s website.
C. A broker, Foreign Trade Zone operator, cartman, and freight forwarder can endorse
collective complete one stop service via any media outlet.
D. A broker can continue to allow a freight forwarder to solicit brokerage referrals while their
permit is suspended for expedited resolution.
E. A broker can authorize employees to distribute flyers flaunting the operation of the
80. Miguel Servet took the Customs broker license exam in April 2010, at the port of Miami,
and subsequently obtained his license through the port of Chicago in October 2011. One month
later, Miguel was hired by Zwingli Customs Brokers (â€œZwingliâ€), a national company employing
79 brokers. Zwingli possesses a corporate broker license. On August 12, 2012, while perusing
old Federal Register notices, Miguel realizes that Zwingli did not file Miguelâ€™s triennially-due
status report nor pay the associated fee (â€œtriennialâ€). Miguel is determined to continue his career
as a licensed broker. Considering such, which of the below is the most appropriate course of
action that Miguel should take?
A. Request that Zwingli submit a post-triennial filing with CBP, as Zwingli was the
responsible party for filing purposes.
B. Contact the port of Chicago directly, not through Zwingli, to submit a post-triennial filing.
C. Submit a well-formed appeal to CBP headquarters in Washington, D.C., within the appeal
timeframe, citing third party liability; submit a copy of the appeal to the licensing port.
D. Upon opening of registration, register to take the next given Customs broker license exam.
E. Nothing; Miguel may continue to transact Customs business as normal. Since the Zwingli
corporate license triennial covers all licensed employees performing Customs work within the
normal course of business, no separate individual triennial must be filed.